An electrostatic ""analog*"" for a magnetic moment: two opposing charges separated by a finite distance.
The Dirac theory is not necessary to explain the g-factor for the electron. The deviation of the electron g-factor from that of the rigid sphere can be readily explained assuming that the charge distribution inside electron is different from the mass distribution.
The field's wide open, easy pickings. Easy as 123:
- by step
- The old fashioned way
* I AM an analog designer and the best science never uses analogs to describe a phenomena, it focuses on the phenomena itself and not an analog(i.e., the analog of water flowing through a pipe for electrical current flow is a very limited analog (model) of current flow and electromegnetism). Do you see how many steps these clownz got away from the ACTUAL phenomena? Is it 1, 2, or 3 steps?
The Surfer, OM-IV
Happy Black Friday!